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What we have then is this: For each fixed opponent strategy, if i is chosen uniformly independently of that strategy (where the "independently" here isn't in the probabilistic sense), we win with probability at least (n−1)/n. That's right. But now the question is whether we can translate this to a statement without the conditional "For each fixed opponent strategy".
– Alexander Pruss Dec 19, 2013 at 15:05

そもそもyes,but法ですらないなｗ